Possible Duplicate:
$S^n \backslash S^m $ homotopy equivalent to $ S^{n-m-1} $
I'm trying to show that, if we embed $S^m$ in $S^n$ as the subspace $\{ (x_1,x_2, \ldots, x_{m+1}, 0, 0, \ldots, 0) \}$, $S^n-S^m$ is homotopy equivalent to $S^{n-m-1}$.
In order to show the homotopy equivalence, I tried to use the inclusion map $S^{n-m-1}$ into $S^n - S^m$, including in the last $n-m$ coordinates, and I'm trying to use functions along the lines of
$$ f(x_1,x_2, \ldots,x_{n+1}) = (x_{m+1}, x_{m+2}, \ldots, x_n, \sqrt{x_1^2+...x_m^2+x_{n+1}^2}) .$$
Then $f \circ g$ is easily shown to be the identity map except with issues of positivity in the last coordinate, so I tried
$$ f(x_1,x_2, \ldots, x_{n+1}) = (x_{m+1}, x_{m+2}, \ldots, x_n, a(x_{n+1}) \sqrt{x_1^2+...x_m^2+x_{n+1}^2}) ,$$
where $a$ is either $\pm 1$ or $0$ depending on the sign of the final coordinate, but then there's an issue in the other direction, i.e. that the final coordinate can only be $0$ when $x_{n+1}=0$.
Is it possible to amend my approach somehow so that $g \circ f$ is also homotopic to the identity map? Thank you for any thoughts or advice.