Tell me more ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Suppose that $n,m$ are integers such that $n > m$. I know that the singular homology groups $H_0(\Bbb{R}P^n;\Bbb{Z})$ and $H_0(\Bbb{R}P^m;\Bbb{Z})$ are both isomorphic to $\Bbb{Z}$. Now suppose I look now at homology with $\Bbb{Z}/2\Bbb{Z}$ coefficients. My setup of maps is as follows: I have $g: S^n \to S^n$ and $g':S^m \to S^m$ antipodal maps and a continuous map $\phi : S^n \to S^m$ such that $$g'\circ \phi = \phi \circ g$$

Now from $\phi$, I obtain an induced map between quotient spaces $\psi : \Bbb{R}P^n \to \Bbb{R}P^m$. This $\psi$ in turn induces a map

$$\psi_\ast : H_0(\Bbb{R}P^n;\Bbb{Z}/2\Bbb{Z})\longrightarrow H_0(\Bbb{R}P^m;\Bbb{Z}/2\Bbb{Z}).$$

Why should $\psi_\ast$ be an isomorphism? I am trying to reason this out using the map $$\begin{eqnarray*}f :& C_0(\Bbb{R}P^n;\Bbb{Z}/2\Bbb{Z}) &\longrightarrow C_0(\Bbb{R}P^m;\Bbb{Z}/2\Bbb{Z}) \\ &\sigma& \mapsto \psi \circ \sigma \end{eqnarray*} $$

where $\sigma : \Delta^0 \to \Bbb{R}P^n$ is a singular $0$ - chain. Does $\psi_\ast$ being an isomorphism come from $f$ being one? I can see that $f$ is surjective (using lifting properties) while does injectivity of $f$ come from the fact that we are now talking of maps from a point to $\Bbb{R}P^n$?

Thanks.

share|improve this question

1 Answer

up vote 3 down vote accepted

A map $\Delta^0 \to X$ is just a point $x\in X$, so we can identify $C_0(X) = \mathbb ZX$ (free $\mathbb Z$ module on basis $X$). What does it mean for two points $x, x'\in C_0(X)$ to become identified in $H_0(X)$? It means that there is a map $p: I \cong \Delta^1 \to X$ such that $p(0) - p(1) = x - x'$, and so $p(0) = x$ and $p(1) = x'$. That is, $x$ and $x'$ are in the same path component of $X$. So, $H_0(X) = \mathbb Z \pi_0(X)$ where $\pi_0(X)$ is the set of path components of $X$.

Thus, if any map $X\to Y$ induces a $\pi_0$ isomorphism, it follows that it also induces an $H_0$ isomorphism. If both spaces are path connected, this is automatic.

All of this goes through with any coefficient ring $R$ in place of $\mathbb Z$, by the way.

share|improve this answer
Thanks for your answer. So in my example above, both $\Bbb{R}P^n$ and $\Bbb{R}P^m$ are path connected, so $\pi_0$ for both of them is just the space itself. So the reason why $f$ induces a $\pi_0$ isomorphism is because such an isomorphism is just a map of sets yes? – BenjaLim Sep 11 '12 at 23:15
2  
By $\pi_0$ isomorphism I do mean a bijection of sets, $\pi_0$ of a path connected space is a one point set, and any map between one point sets is a bijection. – Justin Young Sep 12 '12 at 7:24

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.