Can you give me an example that there is a $f \in C_0^{\infty}(\mathbb C)$, such that the equation $\bar \partial u=f$ has no $C_0^{\infty}(\mathbb C)$ solution?
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If $f\in C^\infty_0(\mathbb{C})$, then $\displaystyle u:\zeta\mapsto \frac{1}{2i\pi}\int_{\mathbb{C}}\frac{f(z)}{z-\zeta}dz\wedge d\bar{z}$ is also in $C^\infty_0(\mathbb{C})$ and is a solution to $\bar{\partial}u=f$ |
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We take a $f\in C^\infty_0(\mathbb{C})$ such that supp$f$ is contained in the unit ball and $f \geq 0$ and $f=1$ on some smaller ball. If we have a compactly-supported solution for the equation, it has to be $\displaystyle u:\zeta\mapsto \frac{1}{2i\pi}\int_{\mathbb{C}}\frac{f(z)}{z-\zeta}dz\wedge d\bar{z}$ since $\mathop {\lim }\limits_{\left| \zeta \right| \to \infty } u(\zeta ) = \infty $. But if we examine the integral using polar coordinate more carefully, we will find Re$u(x,0)>0$ when $x$ is sufficiently large. |
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