I have already looked at the answer here. I'm trying to understand how the poster got:
f(n) = O(1) = O(nlogba)
So far I have O(1) = T(n) - T(n/2). How is it that this became O(nlogba) ?
EDIT: After looking at the theorem, I'm also unsure how aT(n/b) = O(logb n). Is there is a proof for the limit as x->inf for (n/(b^x)) that equals logb n ?