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Given probabilities, $\mathbb{P}(A)$ and $\mathbb{P}(B)$, of events $A$ and $B$, can we determine mutual exclusiveness of the two events?

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up vote 2 down vote accepted

If $\Bbb P(A)+\Bbb P(B)>1$, then clearly $A\cap B\ne\varnothing$: they can’t be mutually exclusive. Otherwise, though, we can’t say anything without further information.

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You were too fast! I'll delete mine. – user22805 Sep 5 '12 at 4:15

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