Why the contour integral of $\,\displaystyle{f(z)=\frac{i-1}{z+i}}\,$ is not zero although it should be because $f(z)$ is analytic? I have used contour $z=\gamma(t)=2e^{it}$, where $0\leq t\leq\pi$.
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It makes no sense to say a function is analytic on its own - you must also specify an open subset of $\mathbb{C}$ that $f$ is analytic over. Here, $f$ is not analytic inside the specified contour - it has a simple pole at $z=-i$ which is contained inside. |
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