I can't understand why max min of a function is less than equal to min max of that function i.e
Why
$$\underset{x}{\text{max}}\:\underset{y}{\text{min}} f(x,y) \leq \underset{y}{\text{min}}\:\underset{x}{\text{max}}f(x,y)$$
Here $x,y \in \mathbb{R}$ and $f(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}$
Moreover, I don't understand intuitively what is the effect of just changing the order of max and min.
Suppose $(\hat{x},\hat{y})$ is the solution of $\underset{x}{\text{max}}\:\underset{y}{\text{min}} f(x,y)$, then why this is not the same solution for $\underset{y}{\text{min}}\:\underset{x}{\text{max}}f(x,y)$.
One more thing I want to know is do we evaluate inner optimization first or outer ? i.e in $\underset{x}{\text{max}}\:\underset{y}{\text{min}} f(x,y)$, do we evaluate $\underset{y}{\text{min}}$ first or $\underset{x}{\text{max}}$ first ?
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Perhaps a simple example will help. Let $f(x,y) = \sin(x+y)$. Then $\underset{y}{\text{min}} f(x,y) = -1$ for all $x$; and $\underset{x}{\text{max}} f(x,y) = +1$ for all $y$. So $\underset{x}{\text{max}}\:\underset{y}{\text{min}} f(x,y) = \underset{x}{\text{max}} (-1) = -1$; but $\underset{y}{\text{min}}\:\underset{x}{\text{max}} f(x,y) = \underset{y}{\text{min}} (+1) = +1\,$. |
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One asks that $$ \max\limits_x\left(\min\limits_sf(x,s)\right)\leqslant\min\limits_y\left(\max\limits_tf(t,y)\right). $$ The assertion is equivalent to the fact that, for every $x$ and $y$, $$ \min\limits_sf(x,s)\leqslant\max\limits_tf(t,y). $$ Since $\min\limits_sf(x,s)\leqslant f(x,y)\leqslant\max\limits_tf(t,y)$ by definition, this holds. |
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Let $\hat x,\hat y$ be the arguments responsible for the value $\underset{x}{\text{max}}\:\underset{y}{\text{min}} f(x,y)$. Then $f(\hat x,y)\ge f(\hat x,\hat y)$ for all $y$. For every $y$, the maximization $\underset{x}{\text{max}}f(x,y)$ extends over one of these values, and thus $\underset{x}{\text{max}}f(x,y)\ge f(\hat x,\hat y)$ for all $y$, and thus also $\underset{y}{\text{min}}\:\underset{x}{\text{max}}f(x,y)\ge f(\hat x,\hat y)=\underset{x}{\text{max}}\:\underset{y}{\text{min}} f(x,y)$. |
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The inequality should be $\sup_x\inf_yf(x,y)\leq \inf_y\sup_x f(x,y)$. Consider $f(x,y)= x^2y^2$. |
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I personally found this question in ML class of mine and went down to solve it myself at home as the teacher did not give any proof. Here it is: |
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