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Other ways to put it: Is there any faith required in the adoption of a system of axioms? How is a given system of axioms accepted or rejected if not based on blind faith?

(PD: I'm not religious)

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A system of axioms is usually (for example in the case of Group Theory, Ring Theory, Theory of Algebraically Closed Fields, $\dots$) a list of the fundamental properties of the objects one will be looking at. So associativity of multiplication just means one will not look at non-associative situations. There is a plethora of examples of structures that satisfy these axioms, no faith needed. The question becomes more complicated in a few cases, most notably axiomatizations of Set Theory. – André Nicolas Aug 14 '12 at 2:54
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Faith isn't required per se, just like it doesn't take faith to play chess. You don't believe those are the rules as if the rules are set in stone, you define them that way and choose to play the game accordingly. No faith is required because you aren't asserting that one system is better or more correct than any other: you're just picking them according to what you're interested in looking at. – Robert Mastragostino Aug 14 '12 at 2:58
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Axioms are as a set of rules: you want to play? Abide by the rules of the game, or else don't play. Another difference with faith and religious beliefs is that nobody has yet be condemned to eternal hell, unspeakable suffering or the like by not accepting the rules of Euclidean Geometry, ZFC or Peano's Axioms...in fact, nobody has even been put to death by that, although the other way around has happened! – DonAntonio Aug 14 '12 at 3:03
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This reminds me an argument I and a (not mathematical) friend had one night in high school. His position was that mathematics was "all about assumptions" (he may have been jaded by a too-difficult physics class, if I am to armchair psychologize...). My position was that it is about exploring abstract hypotheticals. – anon Aug 14 '12 at 4:27
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If you are interest in foundational aspects then you may find of interest expositions by professional mathematical philosophers, e.g. Penelope Maddy's Believing the Axioms I and part II – Gone Aug 22 '12 at 2:37
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5 Answers

up vote 29 down vote accepted

To paraphrase Robert Mastragostino's comment, a system of axioms doesn't make any assertions that you can accept or reject as true or false; it only specifies the rules of a certain kind of game to play.

It's worth clarifying that a modern mathematician's attitude towards mathematical words is very different from that of a non-mathematician's attitude towards ordinary words (and possibly also very different from a classical mathematician's attitude towards mathematical words). A mathematical word with a precise definition means precisely what it was defined to mean. It's not possible to claim that such a definition is wrong; at best, you can only claim that a definition doesn't capture what it was intended to capture.

Thus a modern interpretation of, say, Euclid's axioms is that they describe the rules of a certain kind of game. Some of the pieces that we play with are called points, some of the pieces are called lines, and so forth, and the pieces obey certain rules. Euclid's axioms are not, from this point of view, asserting anything about the geometry of the world in which we actually live, so one can't accept or reject them on that basis. One can, at best, claim that they don't capture the geometry of the world in which we actually live. But people play unrealistic games all the time.

I think this is an important point which is not communicated well to non-mathematicians about how mathematics works. For a non-mathematician it is easy to say things like "but $i$ can't possibly be a number" or "but $\infty$ can't possibly be a number," and to a mathematician what those statements actually mean is that $i$ and $\infty$ aren't parts of the game Real Numbers, but there are all sorts of other wonderful games we can play using these new pieces, like Complex Numbers and Projective Geometry...

I want to emphasize that I am not using the word "game" in support of a purely formalist viewpoint on mathematics, but I think some formalism is an appropriate answer to this question as a way of clarifying what exactly it is that a mathematical axiom is asserting. Some people use the word "game" in this context to emphasize that mathematics is "meaningless". The word "meaningless" here has to be interpreted carefully; it is not meant in the colloquial sense (or at least I would not mean it this way). It means that the syntax of mathematics can be separated from its semantics, and that it is often less confusing to do so. But anyone who believes that games are meaningless in the colloquial sense has clearly never played a game...

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+1: Though it's somewhat disheartening to think of my projected field of study as a game, I suppose I should be glad about the fact that it's one of the most fun games I've had the opportunity to play! – Cameron Buie Aug 14 '12 at 3:44
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The faith involved in religion is holding the position that these axioms are "true" of the reality we experience. Such a position is not necessary to participate in, for example, Euclidean geometry. – OrangeDog Aug 14 '12 at 13:54
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@Gabriel: very very roughly speaking, we might divide religious claims into two broad categories. The first are claims about what kind of behavior is "right." This is a stronger statement than a statement which merely describes some kind of behavior; it is a claim that certain kinds of behavior will, for example, be rewarded in the afterlife and other kinds of behavior will not. The second are claims about the natural world, e.g. that the Earth is 6,000 years old. These are falsifiable. Mathematical axioms are not falsifiable because they do not make any claims about the natural world. – Qiaochu Yuan Aug 14 '12 at 18:58
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@Gabriel: in fact, mathematical axioms make no claims whatsoever. They are essentially definitions. – Qiaochu Yuan Aug 14 '12 at 19:07
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Re: "It's not possible to claim that such a definition is wrong; at best, you can only claim that a definition doesn't capture what it was intended to capture": You can also sometimes claim that a definition is ill-founded. For example, consider a definition of i as "the real number such that i × i = 1". The problem is that this definition presupposes the existence (and perhaps uniqueness) of such a value, when in fact no such value exists (according to the standard axioms that this definition was, no doubt, intended to be consistent with). – ruakh Aug 14 '12 at 21:18
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The role of axioms is to describe a mathematical universe. Some settings, some objects. Axioms are there only to tell us what we know on such universe.

Indeed we have to believe that ZFC is consistent (or assume an even stronger theory, and believe that one is consistent, or assume... wait, I'm getting recursive here). But the role of ZFC is just to tell us how sets are behaved in a certain mathematical settings.

The grand beauty of mathematics is that we are able to extract so much merely from these rules which describe what properties sets should have.

Whether or not you should accept an axiomatic theory or not is up to you. The usual test is to see whether or not the properties described by the axioms make sense and seem to describe the idea behind the object in a reasonable manner.

We want to know that if a set exists, then its power set exists. Therefore the axiom of power set is reasonable. We want to know that two sets are equal if and only if they have the same elements, which is a very very reasonable requirement from sets, membership and equality. Therefore the axiom of extensionality makes sense.

What you should do when you attempt to decide whether or not you accept some axioms is to try and understand the idea these axioms try to formalize. If they convince you that the formalization is "good enough" then you should believe that the axioms are consistent and use them. Otherwise you should look for an alternative.


Related:

  1. I talked about the difference between an idea and its mathematical implementation in this answer of mine which might be relevant to this discussion as well (to some extent).
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Good to see a non-formalist answer/comment. – André Nicolas Aug 14 '12 at 3:15
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@Andre: I am a strongly agnostic person, in mathematics beliefs too. However in some sense I reject all forms of existence (including my own!). I am much closer to being a formalist in my tendencies; however in a strange way I hate when people look at mathematics syntactically. It's just not fun anymore when you take out all the semantics from math! :-) – Asaf Karagila Aug 14 '12 at 3:18
+1: I'd give you +2 for leaving room for later "related" addenda, if I could. ;-) – Cameron Buie Aug 14 '12 at 3:43
@Cameron: Thanks, I already capped out for the day, so there's no point in +2 :-P – Asaf Karagila Aug 14 '12 at 3:44
Am I correct in understanding from your answer that you think the genesis of math is indistinguishable from that of a religion then? If I change the word axioms for the statement a religion's belief system in your last paragraph, I get a direct parallelism between both. – Gabriel Aug 14 '12 at 11:49
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One can believe a set of clearly contradictory statements (indeed, people often do). If it can be proven that a set of statements entails a contradiction, though, it certainly cannot be taken as an axiomatic system.

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I mean, it can, it just isn't a very useful one. – Qiaochu Yuan Aug 14 '12 at 3:28
I suppose arguably, since one can come to any conclusion one desires with a contradiction, it could be considered highly useful, in some sense. ;-) I of course mean it can't logically be taken seriously. – Cameron Buie Aug 14 '12 at 3:40
Speaking of which... – J. M. Aug 14 '12 at 12:59

I am going to go ahead and claim that there is in many ways not much of a difference.

As others here have explained very well, mathematical axioms can be seen as a set of rules and statements describing a mathematical system. And in similar terms, religious beliefs can be seen as a set of rules and statements describing the world we live in (or, as some state, don't actually live in).

However, the term "faith" is mostly meaningless (and, I would claim, irrelevant) as far as mathematics are concerned. To have faith that something is true requires that there is uncertainty about that truth. A lack of proof. Axioms do not need proof, they are the basis of proofs. To have faith in an axiom is pointless.

As for the question of accepting or rejecting axioms, I would claim this to be a moot point. There is no need to accept or reject any particular axiom because there is nothing stopping two mathematical systems coexisting, one with the axiom in question and one without.

Of course, for practical purposes one cannot explore an infinite number of systems, so the question becomes one of usefulness. Does this system, with these axioms, allow me to make useful or interesting statements, or does it not? Most systems will not. But some, like for example that of Euclidean geometry, have resulted in a vast number of useful statements.

The accepting and rejecting of axioms is an issue for religions only because religions tend to make statements not about their own system, but about the world. This is, according to me, the one important way in which mathematical and religious axioms differ: mathematical axioms only make statements about their own systems, while religious axioms may (and often do) make statements about anything and everything.

Where mathematical systems can coexist because they each create their own little hypothetical universe, religions often can not and require faith because we only have this one universe which we insist on making statements about.

To see what happens when we instead start making religious-style statements about another universe, have a look at any well written fantasy or science fiction book. Suddenly axioms which may appear very religious if taken out of context become more mathematical in nature; like mathematical systems they define their own universe, and having "faith" in them once again becomes meaningless.

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This is very formalist view of mathematics, arguably most mathematicians think they are finding truth about real world, not some fictional fantasies nor playing formal games. One of the major issues in the philosophy of mathematics is the applicability of mathematics to the real world problems e.g. google for "The Unreasonable Effectiveness of Mathematics in Natural Sciences". I think your answer is severely inadequate. – Kaveh Aug 25 '12 at 4:40
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You are conflating two meanings of the word "rule" in your second paragraph. The rules that appear in religious doctrine are of a completely different nature from the rules that appear in mathematical axioms. The former generally dictate that some kinds of behavior should occur and others should not. The word "should" does not exist formally in mathematics. Mathematical rules, in the axiomatic sense, are just definitions. They don't carry any normative weight whatsoever. – Qiaochu Yuan Aug 25 '12 at 5:08
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@Kaveh: Interpreting mathematics as describing the real world is quite a separate issue from what axioms are. The group axioms aren't expected to apply to the "real world": they're only expected to apply to groups. The real world only comes into play when we interpret a mathematical theory as describing the real world: the axioms of Euclidean geometry are collectively only expected to apply to Euclidean geometry, but we expect Euclidean geometry to apply to the real world. Asserting the parallel postulate is a truth about the real world is skipping a step! – Hurkyl Aug 25 '12 at 5:42
@Hurkyl, There is a major difference between group theory axioms and axioms for set theory and arithmetic. There is no intended standard model for group theory, there are intended standard models for arithmetic and set theory. The goal of axioms for group theory is that they are applicable to many structures, the goal of axioms for set theory and arithmetic are to capture the intended model as much as possible. – Kaveh Aug 25 '12 at 11:56
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@Kaveh: That doesn't really contradict anything I've said: the difference you cite is not a property of the axioms, but how you intend to apply the theory they generate. That said, I did not intend to support the characterization of mathematics suggested by the answer, but instead to deny the opposite extreme. – Hurkyl Aug 25 '12 at 13:40
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There are similarities about how people obtain beliefs on different matters. However it is hardly a blind faith.

There are rules that guide mathematicians in choosing axioms. There has always been discussions about whether an axiom is really true or not. For example, not long ago, mathematicians were discussing whether the axiom of choice is reasonable or not. The unexpected consequences of the axiom like the well ordering principle caused many to think it is not true.

Same applies to axioms that are discussed today among set theorists. Set theoretical statements which are independent of the ZFC. There are various views regarding these but they are not based on blind belief. One nice paper to have a look at is Saharon Shelah's Logical Dreams. (This is only one of the views regarding which axioms we should adopt for mathematics, another interesting point of views is the one held by Godel which can be found in his collected works.)

I think a major reason for accepting the consistency of mathematical systems like ZFC is that this statement is refutable (to refute the statement one just needs to come up with a proof of contradiction in ZFC) but no such proof has been found. In a sense, it can be considered to be similar to physics: as long as the theory is describing what we see correctly and doesn't lead to strange things mathematicians will continue to use it. If at some point we notice that it is not so (this happened in the last century in naive Cantorian set theory, see Russell's Paradox) we will fix the axioms to solve those issues.

There has been several discussion on the FOM mailing list that you can read if you are interested.

In short, adoption of axioms for mathematics is not based on "blind faith".

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