Subset $A$ of metric space $X$ is meager on $X$, iff $\text{IntCl}A=\emptyset$.
But, why $x$-axis is meager set on $\mathbb{R}^2$?
My attempt (please don't kill me):
$\text{IntCl}\mathbb{R}=\text{Int}\mathbb{R}=\mathbb{R}\neq \emptyset$
Thank you!
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Subset $A$ of metric space $X$ is meager on $X$, iff $\text{IntCl}A=\emptyset$. But, why $x$-axis is meager set on $\mathbb{R}^2$? My attempt (please don't kill me): $\text{IntCl}\mathbb{R}=\text{Int}\mathbb{R}=\mathbb{R}\neq \emptyset$ Thank you! |
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The interior of $\mathbb{R}$ as a subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ is very different from its interior as a standalone topological space. Given any point $P$ on the $x$-axis, every open neighbourhood of $P$ contains a point not on the $x$-axis. So $P$ is not in the interior of the $x$-axis. To put it another way, every point of the $x$-axis is on the boundary of the $x$-axis. |
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Note that the "$x$-axis" as a subspace of $\Bbb R^2$ should be $$A=\{(x_1,x_2)\in \Bbb R^2:x_2=0\}$$ To aid André's answer:
Something more, plus terminology:
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