Here's my attempt, and I'm not sure if it is even close to the right direction.
If $P(X>m+n|X>m)=P(X>n)$ then if F is the cumulative distribution function of X, we have $$\frac{P(X>m+n)}{P(X>m+n)+P(m<X<m+n)} = P(X>n)$$$$\frac{1-F(m+n)}{1-F(m+n)+[F(m+n)-F(m)]} = 1-F(n)$$$$ \frac{1-F(m+n)}{1-F(m)} = 1-F(n)$$$$ F(n) = 1-\frac{1-F(m+n)}{1-F(m)}$$$$ F(n) = \frac{F(m)+F(m+n)}{1-F(m)}$$
Is this even anything?
I was hoping to be able to show that this function must be something like $$F(n)=1-(1-p)^n$$ where $p$ is the probability of a success but I don't know how to do that. Is this a dead end? If so what would be a good way to attack this?