Let $f:[a,b]\rightarrow \mathbb R$ be a continuous function such that
$$\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a}$$
is an increasing function of $x\in [a,b]$. Is $f$ necessarily convex? What if we also assume that
$$\frac{f(b) - f(x)}{b-x}$$
is increasing in $x$?
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Let $f:[a,b]\rightarrow \mathbb R$ be a continuous function such that $$\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a}$$ is an increasing function of $x\in [a,b]$. Is $f$ necessarily convex? What if we also assume that $$\frac{f(b) - f(x)}{b-x}$$ is increasing in $x$? |
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A counterexample (to both) can be constructed from the function $f(x)=x^2$ on the interval $[0,1]$ by adding a little bump to the graph, say, near the point $(1/2,1/4)$. |
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Yes $f$ is necessarily convex (with the added assumption continuous), if $ \displaystyle x\mapsto \frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}$ is increasing over $(a,b]$. Let $a<x<y$ and define $t\in (0,1)$ by $x=ta+(1-t)y$. We have $\displaystyle \frac{f(x)-f(a)}{(1-t)(y-a)} = \frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\leqslant \frac{f(y)-f(a)}{y-a}$, hence $f(x)\leqslant tf(a) +(1-t)f(y)$. |
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