I am somewhat confused while reading a paper. Are these two statements equivalent?
$ A \wedge B \to (C \leftrightarrow D)$
$ [(A \wedge B \wedge C) \to D] \land [(A \wedge B \wedge D) \to C]$
I think you need both statements to be equivalent to the first one. I have not worked it out on paper. I took a confusing theorem from the chapter on integration in an analysis textbook. The parts of the theorem were substituted for letters.
This could be simplified. Are these two statement equivalent?
$A \to (C \leftrightarrow D)$
$[(A \wedge C) \to D] \wedge [(A \wedge D) \to C]$
Are there common exm