Let $A=\left( \begin{array}{cc}0 & 1\\ \end{array}\right)$ and $B=\left( \begin{array}{cc}1 & 0\\ \end{array}\right)$ be two $1\times 2$ matrices.
What is the dimension of $\operatorname{span}\ker(A) \cap \operatorname{span}\ker(B)$?
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Let $A=\left( \begin{array}{cc}0 & 1\\ \end{array}\right)$ and $B=\left( \begin{array}{cc}1 & 0\\ \end{array}\right)$ be two $1\times 2$ matrices. What is the dimension of $\operatorname{span}\ker(A) \cap \operatorname{span}\ker(B)$? |
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It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, see the FAQ.
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The kernel of $A$ is spanned by the vector $(1,0)$ while the kernel of $B$ is spanned by the vector $(0,1)$. So $\ker A$ is $1$-dimensional as well as $\ker B$. Since $span\{(1,0)\}\cap span \{(0,1)\}=(0,0)$, the dimension of the intersection of the two subspaces is $0$. Edit: let me explain how one computes the kernel for each $A$ and $B$. You want to find all column vectors $$ v = \left( \begin{array}{c} x \\ y \\ \end{array}\right) $$ so that $Av=0$ (this will give you the null space of $A$) and $Bv=0$ (this will give you the null space for $B$). Computing $Av$, we get $$ Av = \left( \begin{array}{cc} 0 & 1\end{array}\right) \left( \begin{array}{c} x \\ y \\ \end{array}\right) = 0 x + 1 y = y. $$ Since we need to set this equal to zero, we get $y=0$. So the set of all those vectors satisfying $Av=0$ are of the form $(x,0)$ where $x$ varies over the real numbers. Thus $$ \ker (A)= \{ (x,0): x\in \mathbb{R}\} = \{ x(1,0): x\in \mathbb{R}\} = span\{ (1,0)\}. $$ The same analysis works for $B$. |
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If $Av=0$ and $Bv=0$ then $\binom BAv=0$, where $\binom BA$ is the $2\times 2$ matrix with first line $B$ and second line $A$. But then $\binom BA=E$ the identity matrix. So $\binom BAv=Ev=v=0$. |
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