Tell me more ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

There's an equation in my script, which I do not understand. Let $(B_t)$ be a Brownian Motion and $\Gamma\in\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, $t\ge s$ the equation is

$$P(B_t\in\Gamma | B_s)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{(2\pi)^d(t-s)^d}}\int_\Gamma \exp{\left(-\frac{|z-B_s|^2}{2(t-s)}\right)}dz$$

A reference why this is true would be appreciated. I think there is a Theorem which tells us how to calculate such an expression. Just for completeness, the only result I know is:

Let $\mathcal{G}\subset\mathcal{F}$ a $\sigma$-field, $X$ $\mathcal{G}$ measurable and $Y$ independent of $\mathcal{G}$. For every $F:S_1\times S_2\to[0,\infty]$ which is $\mathcal{S}_1\times\mathcal{S}_2$ measurable we have $$E[F(X,Y)|\mathcal{G}]=E[F(x,Y)]|_{x=X(\omega )}=g(X(\omega ))$$ where $g(x):=E[F(x,Y)]$.

However I do not see how to apply this in this situation.

share|improve this question

1 Answer

up vote 1 down vote accepted

Let $X=B_s$, $Y=B_t-B_s$ and $f(x,y):=(x+y)\chi_A$. All the conditions are satisfied.

share|improve this answer
Why is in the exp function $|z-B_s|$ and not $|z+B_s|$ ? – hulik Jul 25 '12 at 12:23

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.