$f_n(x):[0,1]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ defined by $$f_n(x)= \sin(n\pi x)$$ if $x\in [0,1/n]$, and $$f_n(x)=0$$ if $x\in (1/n,1]$ Then
It Does not converge pointwise.
It converge pointwise but the limit is not continous.
It converge pointwise but not uniformly.
It converge uniformly.
well, limit function is $0$ clearly, clearly $\sup|f_n(x)-0|\rightarrow 0$ as $n\rightarrow \infty$ and $x\in [0,1]$ so, it converges uniformly to $0$ am I right? so in my guess, 4 is only correct.
