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can anyone give me an example and explain why any open set in $\mathbb{C}$ is a domain of holomorphy?

I have understood the fact from here but not able to understand their explanation for $n=1$

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where is 'here'? And who are 'they'? –  user20266 Jul 1 '12 at 13:38
    

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up vote 1 down vote accepted

It's clear that $\mathbb{C}$ itself is a domain of holomorphy.

For other domains, let $p$ be a boundary point of $\Omega$ and put $$f(z) = \frac{1}{z-p}.$$ Then $f$ is holomorphic on $\Omega$ (indeed on $\mathbb{C} \setminus \{ p \}$) and can't be extended across $p$.

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