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If I can prove that for an estimator $\hat{k}( \theta)$ I can write: $$\frac{\partial l(X_1, \dots , X_n)}{\partial \theta} = a(n, \theta)(\hat{k}( \theta) - k(\theta))$$

Am i sure that the estimator is unbiased? and consistent?

NB:

  • $l$: is the log likelihood
  • $X_1$ is generated from a regular model
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If you don't get an answer here, there is a stats website to try. – Gerry Myerson Jun 28 '12 at 0:54
Asked and answered on statSE – Nicolas Essis-Breton Feb 22 at 20:50

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