The Euler-Maclaurin formula says (from Concrete Mathematics section 9.5)
\[ \sum_{a\le{}k< b}f(k)=\int_a^bf(x)dx+\left.\sum_{k=1}^m\frac{B_k}{k!}f^{(k-1)}(x)\right|_a^b+R_m \] where $\displaystyle{}R_m=(-1)^{m+1}\int_a^b\frac{B_m(\{x\})}{m!}f^{(m)}(x)dx$, integers $a\le{}b$ and $m\ge1$.
However, let $a=0$, $b=n$, and consider the series \[ \int_0^nf(x)dx+\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac{B_k}{k!}\left(f^{(k-1)}(n)-f^{(k-1)}(0)\right) \] Unfortuntely, the series usually diverges. So, I wonder whether there is some sufficient condition (easy to verify) that the series converges?
Especially when the series $\sum_{k=0}^\infty{}f(k)$ converges, or more stronger, converges absolutely, what about those conditions?