2
$\begingroup$

It's $g(x)={{x^{2}-1}\over{x^{2}+2}}$ and i have to calculate $g^{13}(0)$.

I can't calculate all the derivates so i think to use power series.

$g(x)={{x^2\over{x^{2}+2}}-{1\over{x^2+2}}}$

Can i use the geometric series?

$\endgroup$

3 Answers 3

1
$\begingroup$

First perform a simple arithmetic trick $$g(x) = \frac{x^2-1}{x^2+2}=1-\frac{3}{x^2+2}$$ then, since $g'(x) = \frac{6x}{(2 + x^2)^2}$ is a odd function, then odd-order derivatives must be odd functions so they are like $$x \cdot p(x)$$ for a certain polynomial function such that $\deg[p(x)]$ is even. Then conclude and find $g^{13}(0) = 0$ since $0$ is a root of the polynomial-rational odd-degree derivative.

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ and for $g^{14}(0)$ is different? $\endgroup$
    – Giulia B.
    Nov 2, 2015 at 21:36
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, because as proved in the link provided, derivative of odd function is even and vice-versa, so derivative of $g^{13}(0)$ is even and thus $0$ is no more a root of the polynomial-rational derivative, so you can't be sure that $g^{14}(0) = 0$ $\endgroup$
    – sirfoga
    Nov 2, 2015 at 21:38
  • $\begingroup$ I can use the power series? $\endgroup$
    – Giulia B.
    Nov 2, 2015 at 21:40
  • $\begingroup$ Of course, but since the function is rational and not at all difficult, you'd better not use them! :) $\endgroup$
    – sirfoga
    Nov 2, 2015 at 21:41
  • $\begingroup$ but if i want use the power series how can i do? $\endgroup$
    – Giulia B.
    Nov 2, 2015 at 21:45
0
$\begingroup$

In principle yes, but it would be easier if you were to perform a polynomial division $$ \frac{x^2-1}{x^2+2}=1-\frac{3}{x^2+2}. $$ Perhaps you can even divine from the symmetry of the function what odd derivatives are likely to be?

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

$$g(x)={{x^{2}-1}\over{x^{2}+2}}=\frac{(x^2+2)-2-1}{x^2+2}=1-\frac{3}{x^2+2}$$

$$=1-\frac{3}{2}(\frac{1}{1+(\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}})^2})$$ depending on the geometric series $$=1-\frac{3}{2}(1-(\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}})^2+(\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}})^4-(\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}})^6+.........$$ so every odd derivative at $x=0$ will be $0$ because all remaining terms will contain $x$ with power one or more

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .