# Yet another Evaluating Limit Question

How do I begin to evaluate this limit: $$\lim_{n\to \infty} \left(1-\frac{1}{n^2-4}\right)^{3n^2+5}$$

Does it equal to $e^{-1}$? (Please don't use ln.)

Thanks a lot.

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Let $m=n^2-4$, and
$$\lim_{m\rightarrow\infty}\left(1-\frac1m\right)^{3m+17}=\left[\lim_{m\rightarrow\infty}\left(1-\frac1m\right)^{m}\right]^3=\frac1{e^3}$$
The basic idea behind this proof is to transform the limit to a representation of the natural base $e$ (As you prohibit the use of $\ln$). So, mi dispiace I cannot think of a way without doing this $m$ thing. –  wangdw May 2 '12 at 10:04
Formally, $\left(1-\frac{1}{m}\right)^{3m+17}=\left(1-\frac{1}{m}\right)^{3m}\left(1-\frac‌​{1}{m}\right)^{17}$. But $\left(1-\frac{1}{m}\right)^{17}$ approaches $1$ as $m\to\infty$, so does not affect the limit. –  André Nicolas May 2 '12 at 10:21
Intuitively $m\rightarrow\infty$ such that 17 is really negligible in comparsion to it. If you are unhappy with this explanation, notice that $\lim_{m\rightarrow\infty}(1-\frac1m)^{17}=1$. As for the latter question, refer to the equation $m=n^2-4$. –  wangdw May 2 '12 at 10:22