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If an item of price $x$ is stolen from me or lost (assume that it is never going to be found again or returned to me), and I replace it by buying it again, but at its current price $y$, what is my actual loss? Is it $x$, $y$ or $y-x$?

This question stems from a real life experience where my train tickets were stolen from me and I had to repurchase the same ones at a higher price.

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closed as off-topic by Najib Idrissi, quid, Joel Reyes Noche, Johanna, Mark Fantini Mar 4 '15 at 1:41

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave these specific reasons:

  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Johanna, Mark Fantini
  • "This question is not about mathematics, within the scope defined in the help center." – quid, Joel Reyes Noche
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

This would be better placed at, I think. But since before the event you had the item and a sum $y$ of money and after the event you have an equivalent item but not the money, it seems clear that your loss is $y$. I wouldn't call that an estimate -- it's your exact loss. – joriki Apr 27 '12 at 8:52
Thanks @joriki! I edited the question because I agree that it's the actual loss and not an estimate. – SNag Apr 27 '12 at 9:02
up vote 2 down vote accepted

After the theft and replacement, you still have the exact same items you had before (assuming as in the example that the replacement is strictly like-for-like), but you have $y$ less money. Thus your loss is $y$.

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Yes, if you replace you product with a better product other price your loss changes. – checkmath Apr 27 '12 at 9:11

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