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Edit: The $F$'s are Fibonacci numbers.

I need an idea on how to show the following:

If $m$ and $n$ are positive integers, then $(F_m,F_n)=F_{(m,n)}$.

I believe that using the fact that $F_{m+n}=F_mF_{n+1}+F_nF_{m-1}$ could come in handy. Moreover, Euclid's algorithm may as well be needed. But I am not certain, as there may be better methods to achieve this.

Thanks in advance.

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marked as duplicate by Bill Dubuque May 9 at 15:09

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

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What is $f_m$, $f_n$? –  Daan Michiels Apr 25 '12 at 18:16
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Hint. $F_{kn}$ is divisible by $F_n$ –  Arturo Magidin Apr 25 '12 at 18:22
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This is most probably a duplicate though I can't find the link right now. –  lhf Apr 25 '12 at 18:23
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Here is one answer: math.stackexchange.com/questions/60340/… –  sdcvvc Apr 25 '12 at 18:30
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Josué: The proof is induction on $n+m$, so this is inductive hypothesis you can assume. –  sdcvvc Apr 25 '12 at 18:40

1 Answer 1

up vote 1 down vote accepted

As noted in the comments by sdcvvc, this answer to an earlier question completely answers this question as well.

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