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There is a list of $63$ items, from which $20$ items are picked in month $1$. What is the chance of $1$ item from the $20$, being picked again in the month $2$?(month $2$ also picks 20 items)

Then further, what is the chance that $2$ items from the $20$ from month $1$ are picked again in month $2$.

Then further, what is the chance that $3$ items from month $1$ are picked again in month $2$..... etc... in theory all the way to the probability of picking all $20$ items identically from month $1$ to month $2$ out of a total of $63$.

My goal is to able to do this for any number, such as the chance that $9$ items from month $1$ are picked again in month $2$.

From my understanding, the chance of getting 1 item the same from $20$ items picked from a total of $63$ from month $1$ to month $2$ is:

$$1 - \frac{_{43}C_{20}}{_{63}C_{20}}$$ or $99.99$%

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2 Answers 2

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It seems to me that what you're after is the probability mass function of a hypergeometric distribution.

The hypergeometric distribution gives the probability of k successes in n draws, without replacement, from a finite population of size N that contains exactly K successes.

The pmf of a hypergeometric distribution is well known:

$$ P ( X = k ) = \dfrac{\binom{K}{k} \binom{N-K}{n-k}}{\binom{N}{n}}$$

In your case, the population size $N$ is 63. The 'successes' that you are after are the $K=20$ balls that were drawn in the first month. Here, $n = 20$, the number of draws in the second month. You want to find out the probability that exactly $k$ balls that were drawn in the first month were also drawn in the second month, and we can use the formula above to answer that question.

So, for example, the probability that exactly one item is the same (the other 19 are different) in the second month is given by:

\begin{align*} P(X = 1) &= \dfrac{\binom{20}{1} \binom{43}{19}}{\binom{63}{20}}\\ &= \dfrac{169600600}{142894872351}\\ & \approx 0.001186890734 \end{align*}

This may seem quite small, compared with the value you calculated in the statement of your question above. A little bit of consideration, however, will lead to the observation that it would in fact be quite rare for there only to be a single item drawn in both months. In fact, what you have calculated in the statement of the question is the probability that there is at least one item selected in month two that was also selected in month 1; i.e. $P(X \geq 1)$.

Hope this helps

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much. So (( 20 Choose 9 )( 43 Choose 11 ))/( 63 Choose 20 ) = 7.1% chance to pick exactly 9 duplicate items from the 20 picked in month 2 as were picked from the 20 in month 1? $\endgroup$
    – jmb528
    Jul 13, 2015 at 13:31
  • $\begingroup$ In addition, is there a way to actually say that a certain percentage is actually 'significant'? For example, at 6 duplicate items from month 1 to 2, it is a 22% chance. Will significant always be a subjective matter? In addition, is it as simple as 1 minus the probably for making it at least that number? For example, 1-.22 = 78% chance at least 6 duplicate items are chosen? Or do you add up the chances for 1 through 5 (.001, .008, .035, .095, .17), which would give 31.4%, and then 1-.314 to be 68.6% chance that at least 6 duplicate items are chosen? $\endgroup$
    – jmb528
    Jul 13, 2015 at 13:55
  • $\begingroup$ To go further, is there away to show the chance of a range being chosen? For example, the chance that 4 to 9 are chosen duplicate? Would that be as simple as adding the probabilities of getting each? So, .095+.174+.225+.210+.143+.071=91.9% chance of getting between 4 and 9 duplicate items (including 4 and 9)? $\endgroup$
    – jmb528
    Jul 13, 2015 at 14:01
  • $\begingroup$ Pardon my enthusiasm, but is there a way to apply this to some sort of standard deviation to determine 'outliers'. For example, choosing 20 duplicate items from month 1 to 2 is probably considered an outlier on a standard deviation. Or maybe I have this concept mixed up. The goal here refers to my previous comment of finding 'significant' results. $\endgroup$
    – jmb528
    Jul 13, 2015 at 14:09
  • $\begingroup$ Sounds like you've got the right idea as far as calculating percentages for individual draws. As far as calculating the probability that there are (for instance) more than 6 duplicate items chosen (i,e, the probability that 7,8,9, ... are duplicate), you could add up the probability of 0,1,2,3,4,5 and 6 being duplicate, and then subtract that from one to get your result. $\endgroup$
    – MacCab
    Jul 13, 2015 at 14:21
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Hint

What you have computed is the probability of getting at least 1 item from the 20.

Can you divide the items into two types : 20 selected ("special") and 43 not selected ("ordinary") in month 1, and work out ?

Hint 2

If you have not heard of the hypergeometric distribution, suppose you want to compute the probability of 3 "special" and 17 "ordinary" selected, does the formula below make sense ?

$$\frac{{20\choose 3}\cdot{43\choose {17}}} {63\choose 20}$$

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