Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

I would like to ask whether there is a proof of the following statement: Let $p$, $q$ be primes and $n$ positive integer coprime with $pq$. Then $\frac1{\log p}$, $\frac1{\log q}$ and $\frac1{\log n}$ are linearly independent over the rationals.

share|cite|improve this question
A much stronger statement follows from Schanuel's conjecture ('s_conjecture), namely that the logarithms of the primes are algebraically independent. – Qiaochu Yuan Apr 11 '12 at 23:14

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.