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I am not able to understand why $$(r_1 +\cdots + r_{i-1} + r_{i+1} +\cdots + r_k) - a_i \in A_i$$ in the last line of Theorem 17.5 (Chinese remainder theorem) of this link.

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the link is broken – I. J. Kennedy May 21 '13 at 19:05
up vote 1 down vote accepted

By assumption (see the previous sentence) you have $r_i \in A_1 \cap A_2 \cap \cdots\cap A_{i-1} \cap A_{i + 1} \cap \cdots \cap A_k$. So in particular, $r_1 \in A_i, r_2 \in A_i, \dots r_{i-1} \in A_i, r_{i+1} \in A_i, \dots r_k \in A_i$. So you have $r^\prime = r_1 + r_2 \cdots + r_{i-1} + r_{i+1} + \cdots + r_k \in A_i$. Since $A_i$ is an ideal and $a_i, r^\prime \in A_i$ you also have $r^\prime - a_i \in A_i$.

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Thank you very much. – Faisal Apr 7 '12 at 10:13
@Faisal You're welcome : ) – Rudy the Reindeer Apr 7 '12 at 16:32

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