Does homotopy equivalence of pairs $f:(X,A)\to(Y,B)$ induce the homotopy equivalence of pairs $f:(X,\bar A)\to(Y,\bar B)$?

Question

When we have a homotopy equivalence through a pair $f:(X,A)\to (Y, B) $, it is said that we can induce a homotopy equivalence through a pair $f:(X,\bar A)\to (Y,\bar B) $, where $\bar A$ stands for the closure of A. Do you know how we can prove this?