Tell me more ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Does the extended real line form a metric space such that we can define limits in the usual way?

I read on a blog that if we define $$d(x,y) = \left|\,\overline{\arctan}(x) - \overline{\arctan}(y)\right|\;,$$

where

$$\overline{\arctan}(x)= \begin{cases} \pi /2 & \text{if } x=\infty \\ -\pi/2 & \text{if } x= -\infty \\ \arctan(x) & \text{else} \end{cases} $$

This clearly gives a metric space, but I'm having trouble showing that limits in this metric space correspond to the usual ones. Basically, I'm trying to explain why $\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} f(x)$ has a definition which is different from $\lim_{x \rightarrow p} f(x)$.

share|improve this question
2  
It has a different definition because $\infty$ is not an element of $\mathbb R$ – Ilya Mar 29 '12 at 17:18
1  
Where are you having trouble? For finite $x$ the fact that $|x_n-x|\to 0$ iff $d(x_n,x)\to 0$ is basically just continuity of $\arctan$, and that $x_n\to\pm\infty$ iff $d(x_n,\pm\infty)\to 0$ follows pretty easily from the nature of $\arctan$. – Brian M. Scott Mar 29 '12 at 17:40

Know someone who can answer? Share a link to this question via email, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook.

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.