Tell me more ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Consider a (locally trivial) fiber bundle $F\to E\overset{\pi}{\to} B$, where $F$ is the fiber, $E$ the total space and $B$ the base space. If $F$ and $B$ are compact, must $E$ be compact?

This certainly holds if the bundle is trivial (i.e. $E\cong B\times F$), as a consequence of Tychonoff's theorem. It also holds in all the cases I can think of, such as where $E$ is the Mobius strip, Klein bottle, a covering space and in the more complicated case of $O(n)\to O(n+1)\to \mathbb S^n$ which prompted me to consider this question. I am fairly certain it holds in the somewhat more general case where $F,B$ are closed manifolds. However, I can't seem to find a proof of the general statement. My chief difficulty lies in gluing together the local homeomorphisms to transfer finite covers of $B\times F$ to $E$. Any insight would be appreciated.

share|improve this question
How about this: Take an open cover of $E$. For each point $b \in B$ choose a finite subcover $U_{b,1}, \ldots, U_{b,n(b)}$ of the fiber $\pi^{-1}(b)$ over $B$. Project those sets down and intersect them to get an open set $V_{b}$. Then $\pi^{-1}(V_b)$ is contained in their union. The sets $V_b$ cover $B$, so we find $b_1, \ldots, b_n$ such that $V_{b_1},\ldots,V_{b_n}$ covers $B$. The collection $U_{b_j,1},\ldots, U_{b_j,n(b_j)}$, $j=1,\ldots,n$ is a finite subcover of the cover we started with. – t.b. Mar 28 '12 at 4:28
2  
@t.b.it may well be the case that your $V_b=B$ yet $E$ is not contained in the union of $U_{b,1},\dots,U_{b,n(b)}$. – Mariano Suárez-Alvarez Mar 28 '12 at 4:34
@t.b. I tried something quite similar to that, yet ran into the problem Mariano pointed out. – Alex Becker Mar 28 '12 at 4:36
@Mariano: You're right. That was quite silly, thanks for the correction. – t.b. Mar 28 '12 at 4:36
1  
@t.b., the natural thing to do is never silly. :) – Mariano Suárez-Alvarez Mar 28 '12 at 16:42

1 Answer

up vote 13 down vote accepted

By local triviality, there is a open covering $\mathcal U$ of $B$ such that for each $U\in\mathcal U$ the open subset $\pi^{-1}(U)$ of $E$ is homeomorphic to $U\times F$ in a way compatible with the projection to $U$. It follows that there is a subbase $\mathcal S$ of the topology of $E$ consisting of open sets each of which is contained in one of these $\pi^{-1}(U)$ and corresponding under those homeomorhisms to an open subset of $U\times F$ of the form $V\times W$ with $V\subseteq U$ open in $B$ and $W\subseteq F$ open in $F$.

To prove compactness, it is enough to show that every covering of $E$ by subsets of $\mathcal S$ contains a finite subcovering —this is called Alexander's subbase lemma and is used in one of the proofs of Thychonof's theorem (for example, in Kelley's book, iirc). Do that!

share|improve this answer
1  
So, that's the way of making the intuition in my flawed argument in the comments into a proof. Alexander's subbase lemma (indeed in Kelley, Thm. 6 of Chapter 5 of the 1955 edition) + the precise use of local triviality was what I was missing. Nice! – t.b. Mar 28 '12 at 4:58

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.