In my geometry class last year I remember putting down the statement in a column proof "That all isosceles are always and only similar to other isosceles". I do not remember what I was trying to prove. But, I do remember that I was stressed and that was the only thing I could think of and made a guess thinking I would probably get the proof wrong on my test.
Funny enough though, I didn't get the proof wrong and I was wondering if anyone could show a proof as to why this would be true. I mean I makes sense but, I do not see any way to prove it. Could you please explain how this is true?