From Wikipedia:
A variety of diagonal arguments are used in mathematics.
- Cantor's diagonal argument
- Cantor's theorem
- Halting problem
- Diagonal lemma
Besides the above four examples, there is another one I found in a blog. When proving that "if a sequence of measurable mappings converges in measure, then there is a subsequence converging a.e.", the construction of the subsequence is also called diagonalization:
The method for establishing this result is fairly typical of such arguments: we rely on diagonalization along with the control that Borel-Cantelli gives us. Let $f_n$ be a sequence that converges in measure to $f$. This means that for any n we have a $f_{m_n}$ with $\mu(|f_{m_n} - f| > 1/n) < 2^{-n} $. Applying Borel-Cantelli to the sequence of sets $A_n = \{x | |f_{m_n}(x) - f(x)| > 1/n\}$ yields $\mu(\limsup_m \cup_{n=m}^\infty A_n) = 0$. But this is simply saying that the set of points on which $f_{m_n}$ doesn’t converge to $f$ has measure $0$.
As someone who has not been very much exposed to this "diagonalization argument" type of things before, I wonder if the examples above have something in common, so that we may answer what "diagonalization argument" is and what kinds of problems it may help to solve?
Please excuse me if my question is lame. Thanks and regards!