|
I am reading Introduction to Quantum Computing by Kaye, Laflamme, and Mosca. As an exercise, they write "Prove that if the operators $P_{i}$ satisfy $P_{i}^{*}=P_{i}$ and $P_{i}^{2}=P_{i}$ , then $P_{i}P_{j}=0$ for $i\ne j$.'' In the context of this problem, it has been assumed that $I=\sum_{i=1}^{n} P_{i}$, where I suppose that $n$ could be infinite. I have shown that this is true in the trivial case $n=2$, but the general case has been eluding me. How should I attack this? |
||||
|
|
|
For each $j$, $$P_j=P_jIP_j=P_j\left(\sum_{k=1}^n P_k\right)P_j=\sum_{k=1}^nP_jP_kP_j=P_j+\sum_{k\neq j}P_jP_kP_j,$$ so $\sum\limits_{k\neq j}P_jP_kP_j=0$. For each $i\neq j$, $P_jP_iP_j=(P_iP_j)^*P_iP_j$ is a positive operator, and a sum of positive operators is positive, so $-P_jP_iP_j=\sum\limits_{k\neq i,j}P_jP_kP_j$ is also positive. This is only possible if $P_jP_iP_j=0$. Since $\|P_iP_j\|^2=\|(P_iP_j)^*P_iP_j\|=\|P_jP_iP_j\|$, it follows that $P_iP_j=0$. |
||||
|
|
