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While working on problem #2 on Project Euler, I came across the need to express $F_n$ as a linear combination of $F_{n-3}$ and $F_{n-6}$. This is relatively simple to do:

$$\begin{align} F_n &= F_{n-1}+F_{n-2}\\ &= F_{n-1}+F_{n-3}+F_{n-4}\\ &= F_{n-1}+F_{n-3}+F_{n-5}+F_{n-6}\\&= F_{n-2}+2F_{n-3}+F_{n-5}+F_{n-6}\\&= 3F_{n-3}+F_{n-4}+F_{n-5}+F_{n-6}\\&=4F_{n-3}+F_{n-6}\end{align}$$

This argument is ad hoc to an extreme, and it made me wonder about a more general conjecture:

Conjecture. Let $a,b<n$ and $a\neq b$. Then $F_n = \lambda F_{n-a} + \kappa F_{n-b}$ for some $\lambda,\kappa\in\mathbb Z$.

Is this true? If so, how can it be proven? If not, can we include some hypotheses on $a$ and $b$ that make it true?

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  • $\begingroup$ By induction? Once you have two consecutive values, the Fibonacci recurrence kicks in. $\endgroup$ Jan 13, 2015 at 22:06
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    $\begingroup$ <peeve> It is so annoying when someone accepts an answer too quickly, and that too the wrong one. </peeve> $\endgroup$
    – Aryabhata
    Jan 14, 2015 at 2:41
  • $\begingroup$ @Aryabhata In my defense, at the time I accepted an answer there were not other answers coming in (the next answer is shown several hours after the one I initially accepted). I've changed my accepted one to one that gives a full answer, and next time I'll be more careful. $\endgroup$
    – theage
    Jan 14, 2015 at 12:04
  • $\begingroup$ @theage: No worries. At least you even bothered to respond to my comments. Some folks don't even care :-) I suggest you wait at least a couple of days before even thinking about accepting. By accepting an answer too soon you cut down on the number of folks who will even see the question. $\endgroup$
    – Aryabhata
    Jan 14, 2015 at 13:12

4 Answers 4

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Note that we can't always do this with integer coefficients. For example, $$ F_{n}=\frac52F_{n-2}+\frac12F_{n-5}\tag{1} $$ and $$ F_{n}=\frac{13}3F_{n-3}-\frac23F_{n-7}\tag{2} $$


We can use the fact that $$ \left(\frac{1\pm\sqrt5}2\right)^n=\frac1{2^n}\sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor n/2\rfloor}\binom{n}{2k}5^k\pm\frac{\sqrt5}{2^n}\sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor(n-1)/2\rfloor}\binom{n}{2k+1}5^k\tag{3} $$ to get $$ \begin{align} F_n= &\frac{\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\lfloor(b-1)/2\rfloor}\binom{b}{2k+1}5^k} {\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\lfloor(b-a-1)/2\rfloor}\binom{b-a}{2k+1}5^k}\frac{F_{n-a}}{2^a}\\ &+\left[\sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor b/2\rfloor}\binom{b}{2k}5^k -\frac{\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\lfloor(b-1)/2\rfloor}\binom{b}{2k+1}5^k} {\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\lfloor(b-a-1)/2\rfloor}\binom{b-a}{2k+1}5^k} \sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor(b-a)/2\rfloor}\binom{b-a}{2k}5^k\right]\frac{F_{n-b}}{2^b}\tag{4} \end{align} $$ Thus, there is always a recurrence with rational coefficients for any $0\lt a\lt b$.


Note that if we let $\psi=-1/\phi$, then both $\phi$ and $\psi$ satisfy $$ \begin{align} 0 &=(x^n-\phi^n)(x^n-\psi^n)\\ &=x^{2n}-(\phi^n+\psi^n)x^n+(\phi\psi)^n\\ &=x^{2n}-L_nx^n+(-1)^n\tag{5} \end{align} $$ where $L_n$ is a Lucas Number. Therefore, the Fibonacci numbers satisfy $$ F_n=L_kF_{n-k}-(-1)^kF_{n-2k}\tag{6} $$ Fix $k$ and let $a_j=jk$ and $b_j=(j+1)k$. Equation $(6)$ has integer coefficients for $a_1,b_1$.

Equation $(6)$ says that if we have coefficients $\lambda_j,\kappa_j\in\mathbb{Z}$ for $a_j,b_j$, then $$ \begin{align} F_n &=\lambda_jF_{n-jk}+\kappa_jF_{n-(j+1)k}\\ &=(\lambda_jL_k+\kappa_j)F_{n-(j+1)k}-(-1)^k\lambda_jF_{n-(j+2)k}\\ &=\lambda_{j+1}F_{n-(j+1)k}+\kappa_{j+1}F_{n-(j+2)k}\tag{7} \end{align} $$ where $\lambda_{j+1}=\lambda_jL_k+\kappa_j$ and $\kappa_{j+1}=(-1)^{k+1}\lambda_j$ are both integers for $a_{j+1},b_{j+1}$.

Note that $b_j=(j+1)k=(j+1)(b_j-a_j)$.

Using $(6)$ and $(7)$, we get a recurrence with integer coefficients if $b-a\mid b$.

In particular, given $k=b-a$ and $j=\frac{b}{b-a}-1$, we have $$ \begin{bmatrix}\lambda\\\kappa\end{bmatrix} =\begin{bmatrix}L_k&1\\(-1)^{k+1}&0\end{bmatrix}^j \begin{bmatrix}1\\0\end{bmatrix}\tag{8} $$ Since $\small\begin{bmatrix}2&1\\-1&-1\end{bmatrix}^2=\begin{bmatrix}3&1\\-1&0\end{bmatrix}$, we can apply $(8)$ even if $b-a=2$ when $b$ is odd. We deal with this in the next section.


As noted by achille hui, $b-a=2$ also allows $\lambda,\kappa\in\mathbb{Z}$. This follows from the case $b-a=1$.

If we apply $(8)$ to the case $a=b-1$, we get $$ \begin{align} F_n &=F_b F_{n-b+1}+F_{b-1}F_{n-b}\\ &=F_b(F_{n-b+2}-F_{n-b})+F_{b-1}F_{n-b}\\ &=F_b F_{n-b+2}+(F_{b-1}-F_b)F_{n-b}\\ &=F_b F_{n-b+2}-F_{b-2}F_{n-b}\tag{9} \end{align} $$ Thus, for $a=b-2$, $$ \begin{bmatrix}\lambda\\\kappa\end{bmatrix} =\begin{bmatrix}F_b\\-F_{b-2}\end{bmatrix}\tag{10} $$


Conclusion: The Conjecture, as stated, is false. However, if $b-a\mid b$ or $b-a=2$, then there are $\lambda,\kappa\in\mathbb{Z}$, given in $(8)$ or $(10)$, so that $$ F_n=\lambda F_{n-a}+\kappa F_{n-b}\tag{11} $$

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  • $\begingroup$ From some experimentation using $(4)$, it seems that $b-a\mid b$ may be necessary as well, but I don't have a proof of this. $\endgroup$
    – robjohn
    Jan 14, 2015 at 2:51
  • $\begingroup$ I should modify my last comment to note that even if $b$ is odd, $b-a=2$ allows an integer recurrence. $\endgroup$
    – robjohn
    Jan 14, 2015 at 9:08
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    $\begingroup$ Well, apparently I've finally managed to ask something nontrivial. This is great, thanks. $\endgroup$
    – theage
    Jan 14, 2015 at 12:16
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Note that for any recurrence (including the Fibonacci sequence) which has a solution $u_n=A\alpha^n+B\beta^n$ the equation $$\lambda u_{n-a}+\mu u_{n-b}=\lambda(A\alpha^{n-a}+B\beta^{n-a})+\mu(A\alpha^{n-b}+B\beta^{n-b})=A(\lambda \alpha^{-a}+\mu\alpha^{-b})\alpha^n+B(\lambda \beta^{-a}+\mu\beta^{-b})\beta^n=u_n$$ implies $$\lambda \alpha^{-a}+\mu\alpha^{-b}=1$$and $$\lambda \beta^{-a}+\mu\beta^{-b}=1$$

And, given $\alpha, \beta, a, b$ this has a unique solution for $\lambda, \mu$ except in degenerate cases.

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  • $\begingroup$ Cute!$\,\,\,\,\,\,$ $\endgroup$
    – theage
    Jan 13, 2015 at 23:10
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    $\begingroup$ -1: This does not even consider the constraint that the coefficients are integers. $\endgroup$
    – Aryabhata
    Jan 14, 2015 at 2:49
  • $\begingroup$ They may not be, for some recurrences. See robjohn's answer. $\endgroup$ Jan 14, 2015 at 3:53
  • $\begingroup$ @martycohen I missed the constraint about integers - sorry. However this does make substantial progress, because the final equations are simple and can be solved explicitly (I may add to this answer if I have time to expand). If there is a unique solution, a solution is only possible in integers if that is an integer solution. And this shows what is generally possible. It also answers the slightly different question whether two arbitrary values of such a recurrence are sufficient to determine every value. $\endgroup$ Jan 14, 2015 at 7:23
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Assume $0 < a < b$, the necessary and sufficient condition for the existence of $\lambda, \mu \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $$F_n = \lambda F_{n-a} + \mu F_{n-b},\quad\forall n \in \mathbb{Z}_{+}\tag{*1}$$ is either $$b - a \le 2\quad\text{ or }\quad b - a = \gcd(a,b) > 2.$$

Let $\alpha = \frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}$ and $\beta = \frac{1 - \sqrt{5}}{2}$, we have the Binet's formula for the Fibonacci numbers:

$$F_n = \frac{\alpha^n - \beta^n}{\alpha - \beta}$$

Using this formula, it is easy to solve for $\lambda, \mu$ and find:

$$F_n = \frac{1}{F_{b-a}}\left(F_b F_{n-a} - (-1)^{b-a} F_a F_{n-b}\right)$$

It is known that Fibonacci sequences is a strong divisibility sequence.
For any positive integers $p, q$, we have

$$p | q \implies F_p | F_q\quad\text{ and }\quad \gcd(F_p,F_q) = F_{\gcd(p,q)}$$

What you are looking for is essentially equivalent to finding $a,b$ such that

$$F_{b-a} | F_a \;\land\; F_{b-a}|F_b\quad\iff\quad F_{b-a} | \gcd(F_a,F_b) \quad\iff\quad F_{b-a} | F_{\gcd(a,b)}$$

Since $\gcd(a,b) \le b - a \implies F_{\gcd(a,b)} \le F_{b-a}$ and $F_k$ is strictly increasing when $k > 2$, the last condition is satisfied when and only when

$$b - a \le 2\quad\text{ or }\quad b - a = \gcd(a,b) > 2$$

This leads to three and only three families of solutions for $(*1)$. Namely,

  1. $b-a = 1$

    • $F_n = F_{a+1}F_{n-a} + F_{a} F_{n-a-1}$
  2. $b - a = 2$

    • $F_n = F_{a+2}F_{n-a} - F_{a} F_{n-a-2}$
  3. $b - a = \gcd(a,b) > 2$, i.e there are integers $c > 2, m > 0$ such that

    • $F_n = \frac{F_{(m+1)c}}{F_c} F_{n-mc} - (-1)^c \frac{F_{mc}}{F_c} F_{n-(m+1)c}$

    As a special case of this, if one take $m = 1$, this leads to

    • $F_n = L_c F_{n-c} - (-1)^c F_{n-2c}$

    where $L_c = \frac{F_{2c}}{F_c} = \alpha^c + \beta^c$ is the Lucas number.

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  • $\begingroup$ (+1) Ah, yes. I remember getting that $b-a=2$ was also a solution. It follows immediately from the fact that $b-a=1$ is a solution. I hope you don't mind that I've included that in my answer (noting that you mentioned it). $\endgroup$
    – robjohn
    Jan 14, 2015 at 7:51
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Remember that the Fibonacci numbers are the unique sequence satisfying the equation $F_{n+1}=F_n+F_{n-1}$ and the conditions $F_0=0$, $F_1=1$. Now, consider the sequence $G_n=aF_{n-s}+bF_{n-t}$. Then it's obvious that $G_n$ satisfies the (linear) equation $G_{n+1}=G_n+G_{n-1}$; to have $G_n=F_n$ we then must only satisfy $G_0=aF_{-s}+bF_{-t}=0$ and $G_1=aF_{1-s}+bF_{1-t}=1$. In matrix notation, this is the condition that $\left(\array{0\\1}\right)=\left(\array{F_{-s}&F_{-t}\\F_{1-s}&F_{1-t}}\right)\left(\array{a\\b}\right)$. But now, presuming that the matrix $\left(\array{F_{-s}&F_{-t}\\F_{1-s}&F_{1-t}}\right)$ is invertible (more on this in a bit), we can rewrite this as $\left(\array{a\\b}\right)=\left(\array{F_{-s}&F_{-t}\\F_{1-s}&F_{1-t}}\right)^{-1}\left(\array{0\\1}\right) =\dfrac1{F_{-s}F_{1-t}-F_{-t}F_{1-s}}\left(\array{F_{1-t}&-F_{-t}\\-F_{1-s}&F_{-s}}\right)\left(\array{0\\1}\right)$.

Now, d'Ocagne's identity states that $F_mF_{n+1}-F_{m+1}F_n=(-1)^nF_{m-n}$; by plugging in $m=-s$, $n=-t$ we find that the determinant of our original matrix $F_{-s}F_{1-t}-F_{-t}F_{1-s}$ is just $(-1)^{t-s}F_{t-s}$; this is nonzero (and so the matrix is invertible) as long as $t\neq s$ (and the case $t=s$ is clearly degenerate - the non-invertibility there says that we can't write $F_n$ as a function of only $F_{n-s}$ for any $s$).

Finally, using the identity and multiplying out by the inverse matrix, we obtain $a=\dfrac{-F_{-t}}{(-1)^{t-s}F_{t-s}}$ and $b=\dfrac{F_{-s}}{(-1)^{t-s}F_{t-s}}$; since $F_{-n}=(-1)^{n+1}F_n$ these can be written as $$a=(-1)^s\dfrac{F_t}{F_{t-s}}$$ and $$b=-(-1)^t\dfrac{F_s}{F_{t-s}}$$ Now, we can use the divisibility property of the Fibonacci numbers, which implies that for $n\gt 2$, $F_n\mid F_m$ iff $n\mid m$. This implies that for $a$ and $b$ to be integers, then (as others have noted) we must have either $|t-s|\leq 2$, or $(t-s)\mid s$ (note that this immediately implies that $(t-s)\mid t$, and so of course $a$ is an integer iff $b$ is).

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