Suppose a finite group has the property that for every $x, y$, it follows that $(xy)^3 = x^3 y^3$.
How do you prove that it is abelian?
Edit: I recall that the correct exercise needed in addition that the order of the group is not divisible by 3.
|
Suppose a finite group has the property that for every $x, y$, it follows that $(xy)^3 = x^3 y^3$. How do you prove that it is abelian? Edit: I recall that the correct exercise needed in addition that the order of the group is not divisible by 3. |
|||||||||||||
|
|
On the other hand, if the order of your group is not a multiple of 3 then it must be abelian! You can read a proof here |
|||||||
|
|
You don't, as the group is not necessarily abelian! The group of upper triangular 3-by-3 matrices with ones along the diagonal and coefficients in the three-element field $\mathbb {Z}/3\mathbb{Z}$ has exponent three, so your equation holds, but it is not abelian. There are lots of examples: the most famous ones are the Burnside groups $B(m,3)$: the group I described above is $B(2,3)$. |
|||||||||||
|