Prove: $\int_{0}^{\infty} \sin (x^2) dx$ converges.

Question

$\sin(x^2)$ is an example for a function which its limit when $x \to \infty$ is not $0$, and still its integral from $0$ to $\infty$ is finite. I'd like your help with understanding why and a direction for a formal prof .

Thanks a lot.

Answer 1

$x\mapsto \sin(x^2)$ is integrable on $[0,1]$, so we have to show that $\lim_{A\to +\infty}\int_1^A\sin(x^2)dx$ exists. Make the substitution $t=x^2$, then $x=\sqrt t$ and $dx=\frac{dt}{2\sqrt t}$. We have $$\int_1^A\sin(x^2)dx=\int_1^{A^2}\frac{\sin t}{2\sqrt t}dt=-\frac{\cos A^2}{2\sqrt A}+\frac{\sin 1}2+\frac 12\int_1^{A^2}\cos t\cdot t^{-3/2}\frac{-1}2dt,$$ and since $\lim_{A\to +\infty}-\frac{\cos A^2}{2\sqrt A}+\frac{\sin 1}2=\frac{\sin 1}2$ and the integral $\int_1^{+\infty}t^{-3/2}dt$ exists (is finite), we conclude that $\int_1^{+\infty}\sin(x^2)dx$ and so does $\int_0^{+\infty}\sin(x^2)dx$. This integral is computable thanks to the residues theorem.

Answer 2

The humps for $x\mapsto \sin(x^2)$ go up and down. Each has an area smaller than that of the last. The areas converge to 0 as you progress down the $x$-axis. By the alternating series test, this converges.

Answer 3

This is also informative, and works when there is no aspect with closed form. Taking Davide's substitution, define $$ A_n^+ = \int_{2 \pi n}^{2 \pi n + \pi} \; \frac{\sin t}{2 \sqrt t} \; dt \; , $$ $$ A_n^- = \int_{2 \pi n + \pi}^{2 \pi n + 2 \pi} \; \frac{\sin t}{2 \sqrt t} \; dt \; , $$ and finally $$ A_n = A_n^+ + A_n^- = \int_{2 \pi n }^{2 \pi n + 2 \pi} \; \frac{\sin t}{2 \sqrt t} \; dt \; , $$

Next, I just used $\int_{m \pi}^{m \pi + \pi} \sin t dt = \pm 2,$ depending upon the integer $m,$ and took bounds based on the size of the denominators.

I suppose we need to start with $n \geq 1.$ With that, $$ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi n + \pi}} \leq A_n^+ \leq \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi n}}, $$ $$ \frac{-1}{\sqrt{2 \pi n + \pi}} \leq A_n^- \leq \frac{-1}{\sqrt{2 \pi n + 2 \pi}}, $$ and $$ 0 \leq A_n \leq \frac{1}{\sqrt{ 8 \pi} \; \; n^{3/2}}.$$

What does this say about convergence? The integral is $$ \sum_{n = 0}^\infty A_n. $$ Convergence does not depend on the initial terms, so we may start at the more convenient $n=1.$ From the $3/2$ exponent in the estimate of $A_n,$ we see that the sum is a finite constant. We do see modest oscillation in the indefinite integral, however the $\sqrt n$ terms in the denominators of $A_n^+$ and $A_n^-$ tell us that eventually the indefinite integral stays within any desired distance of the infinite integral.

This idea, cancellation of alternating contributions, can be used with far worse integrands, $\sin (x^5 - x - 1)$ comes to mind.

Answer 4

I solved this one integral as a particular case of the formula I provide here: http://www.mymathforum.com/viewtopic.php?f=15&t=26243 under the name Weiler.

$$\int\limits_0^\infty {\sin \left( {a{x^2}} \right)\cos \left( {2bx} \right)dx} = \sqrt {\frac{\pi }{{8a}}} \left( {\cos \frac{{{b^2}}}{a} - \sin \frac{{{b^2}}}{a}} \right)$$

$$\int\limits_0^\infty {\cos \left( {a{x^2}} \right)\cos \left( {2bx} \right)dx} = \sqrt {\frac{\pi }{{8a}}} \left( {\cos \frac{{{b^2}}}{a} + \sin \frac{{{b^2}}}{a}} \right)$$

So you have

$$\int\limits_0^\infty {\sin \left( {{x^2}} \right)dx} = \sqrt {\frac{\pi }{8}} $$