Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

I am trying to prove the following:

Suppose $ f:[a,b]\rightarrow\mathbb{R} $ is bounded. Then $ f $ is Riemann integrable if and only if for each sequence of marked partitions $\{P_n\}$ with $\{\mu(P_n)\}\rightarrow0$, the sequence $\{S(P_n,f)\}$ is convergent

,where $\mu(P)$ is the mesh of partition $P$ and $S(P,f)$ is the Riemann sum of $f$ over partition $P$.

My attempt at a solution:

Suppose for each sequence of marked partitions $\{P\}$ with $\{\mu(P_n)\}\rightarrow0,$ $ \{S(P_n,f)\}$ converges.

Let $\epsilon>0$ be given. Then there is an $A\in\mathbb{R}$ and $N\in\mathbb{N}$ such that when $n>N$, there exists $\delta$ such that $\mu(P_n)<\delta\implies |S(P_n,f)-A|<\epsilon$

Then, by the theorem provided by leo below, the existence of $A$ implies that $f$ is Riemann integrable.

Now suppose $f$ is integrable. Then given $\epsilon>0$, there exists $A\in\mathbb{R}$ such that there exists $\delta$ for which $\mu(P)<\delta\implies |S(P,f)-A|<\epsilon, \forall P$.

Then for each sequence each sequence of marked partitions $\{P\}$ with $\{\mu(P_n)\}\rightarrow0,$ $\mu(P_n)<\delta$.

Then, $|S(P_n,f)-A|<\epsilon$ which means that $\{S(P_n,f)\}$ converges to A. Also by the theorem below, $A=\int f dt$

share|cite|improve this question
What is $\mu(P_n)$? – leo Feb 1 '12 at 2:13
This is a notation I have seen for the mesh of a partition; this is the length of the longest interval in the partition. – ncmathsadist Feb 1 '12 at 2:16
Sorry, clarified – Shafat Arbaz Alam Feb 1 '12 at 2:21
Use the definition that says: $f$ is integrable over $[a,b]$ if there exist a number $I$ such that for every $\epsilon\gt 0$ exist $\delta\gt 0$ s.t. if $P$ is partition of $[a,b]$ with $\mu(P)\lt\delta$, then $$|S(P_n,f)-I|\lt\epsilon.$$ Now I'm tired. I'll post an answer tomorrow if nobody does. – leo Feb 1 '12 at 3:10
I know that definition. I'm curious about how I use the sequential properties to get to there. Thanks for your help! – Shafat Arbaz Alam Feb 1 '12 at 3:19

Your statement should be an easy corollary of the Du bois-Reymond and Darboux integration theorem. The proof of the theorem is rather cumbersome. So here is a reference: the proof can be found in Analysis by Its History by Hairer and Wanner.

And by the way, you need to define what convergence as $\{\mu(P_n)\}\to 0$ and what marked partition mean.

share|cite|improve this answer

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.