If I have a subset of $\mathbb R$ with Lebesgue outer measure $0$ and I take the Cartesian product with an arbitrary subset of $\mathbb R$, does the resulting set also have Lebesgue outer measure $0$ in $\mathbb R^2$?
It is enough to show that it is true when the arbitrary subset is all of $\mathbb R$. Since $\mathbb R$ is a countable union of bounded intervals, it is enough to show it is true when the arbitrary subset is a bounded interval. So I recommend proving that it is true for $[0,1]$ first.
If $U$ is an open subset of $\mathbb R$, you can figure out if you don't already know what the measure of $U\times [0,1]$ is.
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