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I've been having trouble with such a rudimentary problem. Let us define a matrix $A$: $$A = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & 0 & -i \\ 0 & 3 & 0 \\ i & 0 & 3 \end{pmatrix}$$ A is a 3 by 3 Hermitian matrix, so it has real eigenvectors and eigenvalues $|\phi_0 \rangle, |\phi_1 \rangle,|\phi_{2} \rangle $ and $\lambda_0, \lambda_1, \lambda_2$: $$\vec \phi_0 = \langle i, 0, 1 \rangle ; \lambda_0 = 2 \\ \vec \phi_1 = \langle 0, 1, 0 \rangle; \lambda_1 = 3 \\ \vec \phi_2 = \langle -i, 0, 1 \rangle; \lambda_2 = 4$$ I'm asked to transform the coefficients of the basis states in a state $|\psi (t) \rangle$, $\alpha$ and $\beta$ by multiplying by $e^{-i \lambda_j t}$, where $t$ is a number. $|\psi(0) \rangle = |0 \rangle$. This is simple, but my problem is I can't rewrite the $|0 \rangle$ state as a linear combination of the three eigenstates. When attempting to solve it normally, I get: $$|0 \rangle = -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} |\phi_0 \rangle + \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} |\phi_2 \rangle $$ or $$\langle 1, 0 \rangle = \langle -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}, 0, \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \rangle$$ When transforming both coefficients by the exponentation function mentioned above when $t=\pi$: $$|0 \rangle = -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} |\phi_0 \rangle - \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} |\phi_2 \rangle $$ or $$\vec 0(t) = \langle -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}, 0, -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \rangle$$ I then rewrite in the 0, 1, 2 basis: $$-i |2 \rangle$$ or $\langle 0, 0, -i \rangle$ This is obviously wrong. The correct answer is $-|0 \rangle$. Where am I going wrong?

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    $\begingroup$ Your notation is confusing. You seem to be labelling eigenvectors two or three different ways: "$|\phi_0\rangle$", "${\vec \phi_0}$", and "$|0\rangle$" (for the subscript $0$, for example). Why not just pick one? Maybe physicists do this, but this is a math forum. If you don't get an answer in a while I suggest translating everything from physics notation to math notation, and you will probably get a correct answer immediately. Your problem looks like it shouldn't be too difficult if you translate it to notation mathematicians like. $\endgroup$ Oct 20, 2013 at 23:43
  • $\begingroup$ @StefanSmith Sorry about that, then. The reason I changed it around was so that mathematicians could make connections to the way physicists write things. It should be alright now. Oh, and $|0 \rangle$ is a different state. It is <1, 0>. $\endgroup$
    – cygorx
    Oct 21, 2013 at 2:12

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