I have a question on a proof regarding this: The question is "Show this is true," although I am not sure if the last minus sign should be an equal sign, or else it doesn't make sense.
I know that this is related to De Moivre's theorem and Euler's theorem. I tried just solving for the real part of
$$1-\frac{1}{2}e^{i\theta}+\frac{1}{4}e^{2i\theta}-\frac{1}{8}e^{3i\theta}+\cdots $$
And as this is a infinite geometric series, I was thinking this might be finding the real part of the sum of infinity. As $e^{i\theta}$ is equivalent to $cos (\theta) + i sin(\theta)$, it could lead me to proving the answer, but I only got $\frac{2}{2+cos \theta}$.
Could anyone advise me on what I did wrong, and what I could do? Thank you in advance! Sorry for any wrong tags or title labelling. Working on those!