The Lemma: If the occurrences $A_n, n=1,2,3...$ are independent and $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n=\infty $ then $P(A^*)=1.$
$$P(A^*)=1-P(\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} \bigcap_{k=n}^{\infty}A_k^c)=1-\lim_{n \to \infty}P( \bigcap_{k=n}^{\infty}A_k^c)$$- because $\bigcap_{k=n}^{\infty}A_k^c$ is a rising set..
$$=1- \lim_{n \to \infty} \lim_{m \to \infty}P(\bigcap_{k=n}^{m}A_k^c)$$-because $\bigcap_{k=n}^{m}A_k^c$ is a falling set $m > n $ it says this makes no sense how its possible..