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Can I use the comparison test for the following problem? $$\sum _{n=1}^{\infty }\:\frac{1}{n^2-6n+10}$$

The denominator has a negative coefficient so i'm not sure if its valid to compare it to a p-series. Does this effect anything, or is it valid to to say this is convergent because it's less than 1/n^2?

Should I use the integral test instead?

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  • $\begingroup$ The comparison test should work fine. $\endgroup$
    – Demosthene
    May 3, 2015 at 17:26
  • $\begingroup$ As an aside, $~\displaystyle\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty\frac1{n^2+a^2} ~=~ \frac\pi a~\coth(a\pi)$. $\endgroup$
    – Lucian
    May 3, 2015 at 18:22

5 Answers 5

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For large $n$, the denominator is less than for $\frac{1}{n^2}$, which means the fraction is greater. Unfortunately, this comparison is the wrong direction for what you want. I recommend the limit comparison test, with the same series $(\sum \frac{1}{n^2})$.

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  • $\begingroup$ So, you're saying I should use limit comparison test by taking this limit $$\lim _{n\to \infty }\left(\frac{\frac{1}{n^2-6n+10}}{\frac{1}{n^2}}\right)$$ which evaluates to 1 and tells me its convergent? OK, I think i'm getting the hang of it... and I just noticed you and Avid have the same suggestion. Thanks guys! $\endgroup$
    – Util
    May 3, 2015 at 19:56
  • $\begingroup$ One good indication that the limit comparison test may be appropriate is that the numerator or denominator contains addition or subtraction with one term "stronger" than the others as n approaches infinity. $\endgroup$ May 5, 2015 at 13:55
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Yes you can for every integer $n>3$ we have : $$\frac{1}{n^2-6n+10}=\frac1{(n-3)^2+1}\leq \frac{1}{(n-3)^2} $$

and we know that: $\sum_{n>3} \frac{1}{(n-3)^2} $ is convergent

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Yes you can, $n^2 - 6n + 10 > \dfrac{n^2}{2}, n > 10$

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You can do the limit comparison test. The limit comparison test is when one series "looks like" another series, but you don't want to go through all the little details of bounding precisely.

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n^2-6n+10}\frac{n^2}{1}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{1-\frac{6}{n}+\frac{10}{n^2}}=1$$

So they both converge.

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By considering the logarithmic derivative of the Weierstrass product for the $\sinh $ function we have that: $$\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{1}{(n-3)^2+1}=\frac{7}{10}+\sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{1}{n^2+1}=\frac{6}{5}+\frac{\pi\coth\pi}{2}.$$

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